On the immigration papers, the words "Palestine Office" are written in Hebrew as "haMisrad Eretz haIsraeli" and "Misrad Eretz Israel". (Office of the Land of Israel). This gives the lie to the claim that Israel simply replaced or erased Palestine in 1948.

All one has to do is look at the maps current to the period to know that Israel was created out Palestine in 1948. Israel has never existed before that time therfore this man did not immigrate to Israel. He immigrated to a zionist colony in Palestine. Even in Biblical times "Israel" was never a single united country but a series of city states with very limited areas of influence. The title of this article is a prime example of Orwellian doublespeak and of repeating lies for so long you think everyone will fall for them. I'm sorry but the world is a lot smarter than that.

otherwise you would see that it is written on the immigration documents "Land of Israel" in Hebrew, not "Palestine". (Read my comment #1.) The term "Land of Israel" was a legally recognized name for Mandate Palestine, when written in the Hebrew language. And let's clear up this issue you raised as well: Israel was not created out of Palestine in 1948, but on the territory of the former British Mandate Palestine, which was absolutely categorically NOT a country, as should be made abundantly clear by the color-coding on all these maps you mention before 1948. Prior to the British Mandate, there was, of course, not even an entity called Palestine. On Renaissance-era and explorers' maps, the territory was usually demarcated as Judaea, and not, funnily enough, "Palestine". Furthermore, saying Bibical Israel was a series of city states and not a united country indicates that you haven't foggiest idea what the Bible actually says. In fact, ancient Israel was the prototypical territorial nation-state, and as a nation formed from the union of 12 tribes under a single monarch, was one of the first of its kind. You needn't take my word for it, though. When Charlemagne consolidated his united Empire, the medieval French kings consolidated various regions into the united nation of France, and the early kings of England consolidated the various Anglo-Saxon kingdoms into a united England, their frame of reference was Biblical Israel and its union of 12 tribes. They often associated themselves with King David and other Israelite monarchs, and the system of anointing kings with oil became based on the Israelite rituals. The bottom line is that Israel is the only independent locally-ruled nation-state based in the Land of Israel in history. The use of the term "Palestine", which was originally only meant as a vague term for a geographical region, not a political entity, has become a by-word for denying or questioning Israel's right to exist. The article is therefore correct, and it is you that dropped the red herring.

last week i saw pictures to the family with my brother he got it from an album from my old uncle .my father apear with a police suit it was befor 80 years he was 17 years old .my mother carrying a baby who died befor 60 years .grand father was 20 years only under an olive tree .. this is the trip to the past not like these pictures the past trips to palastine

Well actually this is not quite true. In Hebrew it was referred to as Israel and this was recognised by the mandatory authorities...as Wikipedia explains: "During the British Mandate of Palestine, the name Eretz Yisrael (abbreviated א״י Aleph-Yod), was part of the official name of the territory, when written in Hebrew. The official name "(פלשתינה (א״י" (Palestina E"Y) was also minted on the mandate coins and early stamps (pictured). Some in the government of the British Mandate of Palestine wanted the name to be פלשתינה (Palestina) while the Yishuv wanted ארץ ישראל (Eretz Yisrael). The compromise eventually achieved was that the initials א"י would be written in brackets whenever פלשתינה is written. Consequently, in 20th century political usage, the term "Land of Israel" usually denotes only those parts of the land which came under the British mandate" Anyway, the use of the word Palestine is also a recent (Roman) invention and Palestine was never a country either so let's call it quits.

It clearly states the word Palestine in two prominent locations. Anything else written in Hebrew could have been written or printed on the document after he arrived in the zionist colony. While Jews may have called it Israel in general the world called it Palestine or the (Christian) Holy Lands. Any search of the internet will turn up at least a dozen maps predating the Bristish mandate clearing defining the land as Palestine. The fact that the Ottomine Empire ruled over the land until the end of WW2 has no bearing. Palestine has been called Palestine for a very long time. Moslem control of the Holy ;lands goes back a long time. When the Christian Crusaders lost Jerusalem to Saladin in 1187 A.D. the Dome of the Rock, the third most holy site in the Muslim world had been there for 496 years!. So 1917AD minus 691A.D. These are facts on the ground as you Israelis are fond of saying. So you do the math. Finally, where where is your documentation or archaeological proof of the existance to of a nation of Israel (12 united tribes ruled over by one man from a central location)?Myths and fairy tales don't count.

http://canadiancoalition.com/forum/messages/14028.shtml Dennis Miller on the Palestinians

#6 - "The Ottomine Empire" as you put it only ruled the area until the end of WWI. Just because you stuck a mosque on a church that was built on the site of the Second Temple does not mean that the land is yours. Just because Saladin (a Kurd) conquered Jerusalem from the Crusaders does not make it yours either. Even the fact that world called it the Holy Land does not make it Arab or Muslim. And let me tell you something else. You claim that the Hebrew inscription on the immigration certificate was superimposed at a later date. Like when? Immediately after he arrived in Israel? Just before the publication of this article? Anywhere in between? Remember Golda Meir? I know, you don't like to be reminded of her, but anyway: The name "Falastin" that Arabs today use for "Palestine" is not an Arabic name. It is the Arab pronunciation of the Roman "Palaestina". Quoting Golda Meir: The British chose to call the land they mandated Palestine, and the Arabs picked it up as their nation's supposed ancient name, though they couldn't even pronounce it correctly and turned it into Falastin a fictional entity. [In an article by Sarah Honig, Jerusalem Post, November 25, 1995]