and there was no continuous Christian presence in the holy land even during the crusade era.

The "Holy Land" is not "holy" - it is an ordinary piece of land - there is nothing "holy" about rocks, stones, mountains, sand or grain. "and there was no continuous Christian presence in the holy land even during the crusade era. " And how exactly would that discredit 4000 years of Jewish history in Israel? Why should I care about Christians in Israel? Israel neither belongs to Christians nor to Moslems but only to the Jewish people.

Jerusalem is mentioned almost 700 times in the Bible but not once in the Koran. No "Palestine" and no "Palestinians" are ever mentioned in the Bible or the Koran or any other ancient source for that matter. How do you explain that Jews themselves and Canaanites, Edomites, Amorites, Phoenicians, Philisteenes, Egyptians, Assyrians, Babylonians, Persians, Greeks, Romans, Byzantinians, Arabs and Turks all mention Israel and Jews but never any "Palestinian" state or people? Strange huh? "Palestine" is a ROMAN/LATIN name. The letter "p" doesn't exist in Arabic. Where do Islam and Christianity come from if not from Judaism? Why are most prophets in the Koran Jews? Regarding archeaology: lack of proof of mass exodus and mass conquest of Canaan is not lack of proof of ancient Israel. There are hundreds of archaological sites that prove the existence of ancient Israel.

At Thebe, Egypt, the black granite Stela primarily commemorates a victory in a campaign against the Libu and Meshwesh Libyans and their Sea People allies, but its final two lines refer to a prior military campaign in Canaan in which Merneptah states that he defeated Ashkelon, Gezer, Yanoam and Isrir "Israel" among others. sign is typically used by the Egyptians to signify nomadic tribes without a fixed city-state, thus implying that ysrỉr "Israel" was the demonym for a seminomadic or rural population. Exodus from one province of Egypt to another Egyptian province is like exodus from Tel Aviv to Haifa. The native dwellers of Palestine were called “Palestinians” by Herodotes in 5th century BC, 2500 years before (modern) Israeli statehood; but Herodotes never heard of Jews, though he walked across the whole land. Jews appeared three hundred years later.

First of all it is true that many Khazars converted to Judaism but the Khazarian empire fell centuries ago in Caucasia and Ukraine, and most European and Mid Eastern Jews have never been to Khazaria. Genetical studies prove time and time again that both European and Mid Eastern Jews have Mid Eastern origin. Regarding the exodus into Israel: Some archaeologists believe it is possible that Jews are the native Canaanites of Canaan/Israel, that formed a distinct Canaanite culture later to be called Israelites. Archaeology has revealed the existence of civil war and strife among the ancient Canaanites. That could explain lacking evidence for the exodus. Israel's ancient existence and history were never a mystery. The mystery is how ancient Israel came into existence.

Let's begin chronologically - with the Egyptian victory stele. If you read the book "The Oxford History of Ancient Egypt" by Ian Shaw, it reads on page 294: "During the first years of his reign Merenptah, who must have been fairly advanced in years already, sent several military expeditions abroad, not only to Nubia, but also into Palestine (in modern history, Israel/Levant is called "Palestine" by historians. The Romans started calling Israel "Palestine" in the 1st-2nd century AD. Neither Romans nor the Roman name "Palestine" existed 1300-1000 BCE. These are my comments), where he subdued the rebellious vassals of Ashkelon, Gezer, and Yenoam; the "victory stele" that records these victories also contains the FIRST REFERENCE in Egyptian sources to Israel, albeit not as a country or city, but as a tribe." PRECISELY - Israelites lived as tribes and seminomads in Israel, prior to the establishment of the Israelite kingdom approximately 1000 BCE. In what way have to discredited or disproved the existence of ancient Israel and ancient Israelites? The Egyptians didn't mention any "Palestine" or "Palestinians". Why? Herodotus was one single man. Are you telling me that one single man should determine the truth about an entire civilization? How do you explain that Egyptian sources (in 1000-900 BCE), and Assyrian sources in 800-700 BCE and Babylonian sources in 600-500 BCE all mention Israel and Israelites/Jews after Egyptian, Assyrian and Babylonian assualts/attacks/conquests of Israel? Why do Persian sources mention Jews in Babylonia during the Babylonian exile? Why did Cyrus let Jews return to Israel? Why does Alexander the Great refer to Jews? Why do the Romans refer to Jews?

A princedom called Israel came to existence in 800 BC, and it had no relation to the ‘Jews’ who appeared a millennium later. ‘Jews’ are not even mentioned in the Torah of Moses, only in the very late books of Esther and Ezra.

Jews are not even mentioned in the Torah of Moses? And who wrote the Torah? Marsians? The people who wrote the Torah were called Hebrews/Israelites. Had you studied history, you would know that the Israelites consisted of 12 tribes - one of them was called Judah - and the tribe of Judah is certainly mentioned in the Torah. Israelites/Hebrews are mentioned in the Torah, since that is what we were called back then. The word "Judean" or "Jew" springs from the tribe of Judah/Yehuda. When the kingdom of Israel split into two kingdoms - one northern and one southern - the northern kingdom, consisting of 10 tribes out of 12, was called Israel, and was destroyed 722 BCE by the Assyrians. The southern kingdom consisted of 2 out of 10 tribes and those two tribes were Judah and Benjamin, and since the tribe of Judah was dominant, the southern Israelite kingdom, populated by Israelites, was called the kingdom of Judah - and its Israelites were later on called Judeans. Judeans is what we were called during and after the Babylonian exile. Anymore questions?

Qura'an never refers to Bani Israel as Jews. Islam is never about race or ethnicity, so Qura'an never called Muslims Bani Ishmael. Strictly, Quraan never called Bani Israel (children of Israel) Jews. when asked them to enter the Holy land, Moses's people "Bani Israel" said to him: there were giant people in the land ( Sura 17:104) and in the next verse "they didn't enter the land", in another Sura; "Moses's people said to him; go with your God to fight, but here we stay". We made, as punishment, Bani Israel dispersed in the planet earth till the Last Day (Judgment Day) when we summon them to Our Judgment (Sura 17:104).

The Megilat Ester is the Book of Esther. The Hebrew Tanakh ( the "Old Testament" of the Christian Bible) includes Torah. Torah is just one book of many books within the Tanakh (pronounced Tanak). I already told you, but in vain, that the Jewish people has many names: the first and original name - Hebrews. Later on we were called Israelites. When the kingdom of Israel (established 1000 BCE) split into the northern kingdom of Israel (10 of 12 tribes) and southern kingdom of Judah - named after the tribe of Judah (2 of 12 tribes), the Israelites of the southern kingdom were called later on Judeans. Both Judeans of the south and the Israelites of the north were ethnically Israelite/Hebrew. The word Judean originally refered only to ONE ISRAELITE TRIBE, but the word Judean later on received an expanded meaning to include the ENTIRE ISRAELITE/HEBREW people. Hebrews/Israelites/Jews spoke the same language - Hebrew, used the same alphabet - the Hebrew alphabet, lived in the same land - Israel/Canaan, prayed to the same God, loved the same capital of Israel - Jerusalem, celebrated the same traditions, used Hebrew names for men, women and children, kept kosher, celebrated shabbat, read the same Torah, and refered to the 12 tribes of Israel. It is the same nation - only different names. Do you now understand?

THE QUR'AN SAYS: "To Moses We [Allah] gave nine clear signs. Ask the Israelites how he [Moses] first appeared amongst them. Pharoah said to him: 'Moses, I can see that you are bewitched.' 'You know full well,' he [Moses] replied, 'that none but the Lord of the heavens and the earth has revealed these visible signs. Pharoah, you are doomed.'" "Pharoah sought to scare them [the Israelites] out of the land [of Israel]: but We [Allah] drowned him [Pharoah] together with all who were with him. Then We [Allah] said to the Israelites: 'Dwell in this land [the Land of Israel]. When the promise of the hereafter [End of Days] comes to be fulfilled, We [Allah] shall assemble you [the Israelites] all together [in the Land of Israel]." "We [Allah] have revealed the Qur'an with the truth, and with the truth it has come down. We have sent you [Muhammed] forth only to proclaim good news and to give warning." [Qur'an, "Night Journey," chapter 17:100-104] Quick note regarding your talkback nr 39: Moslems are indeed a religion. Jews are an ethnic group of people with a religion of its own. Your definition of Moslem is religious. Our definition of a Jew is ethnic and religious. Let's assume, for a second argument, that the Koran doesn't explicitly use the word "Jew" in relation to Israel, who do you think Moses was and the people of Moses? I said before and I'll say again: Hebrew=Israelite=Israeli=Judean=Jew.